An Open Question on Punishment

In the Genealogy of Morality, Nietzshe talks on punishment in the past as being something that made the people feel good, how it brought them joy to see. This seems to be the case even today. All be it the system is different; we no longer draw and quarter, or boil people in oil, the judicial system does seem to have the same function as those systems of old. That is to make people feel better.
This function also seems to work in a way in which it maintains peoples trust in what they, at least perceive as being an ordered society. Without the punishment people may come to think that anything could be done to themselves or their property, in a sense to their very sovereign nature, without having some kind of recourse toward that action.
Plainly: the use of punishment, or in the modern era, the judicial system, makes people feel better about things. That while there has been an infringement in the social order, the order has been reestablished and those that have harmed it have been dealt with in one way or another.
So while we don't have hangings, or boiling of people, at celebrations during the inauguration of our or President which reenforce the peoples belief in the power of the state, we do still have a system that supports it and makes people feel good that what they see as being wrong has been punished.
So there is a question, at what point, if there is one, does the function of punishment stop being a means to reassure the public, and becomes a way of mollify or blind the public to those injustices that are not being punished? Furthermore, is there a point at which the system/function of punishment stop serving to the people/society but rather begins to serve itself?

Comments

  1. Let me add and say that while it does not seem that Nietzsche brings it up, this tendency of what he calls aristocratic punishment does not seemed to have changed much with the rise of Judo-Christian morals.

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